and said, 'Therefore a man shall
leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall
become one flesh'? -- Matthew 19: 5 (ESV)
Now concerning the matters about which you wrote: "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman." -- 1Corinthians 7: 1 (ESV)
According to Eddie Hyatt Matthew and Paul should have used the word "aner" here instead of anthropoi. Yet we can see the silliness of his argument. Does "women" fit into either of these Scriptures? No and neither does it belong in 2Timothy 2:2.
"The same is true of Ephesians 4:8 (MEV) where Paul introduces the ascension of gifts of apostle, prophet, evangelist, pastor and teacher. He says that Christ "ascended on high" and "gave gifts to people." The King James and New King James versions got it wrong when they translated anthropoi in this passage as "men." The 2011 New International Version, New Revised Standard Version and New Living Translation got it right by translating the word as "people," for that is its literal meaning. These passages that show women functioning in leadership roles and teaching men should cause us to step back from using I Timothy 2:11-12 to marginalize women and confine them to subservient roles in the church. And when we consider the actual Greek word that Paul used for "authority" in 1 Timothy 2:12, we can be confident that Paul did not bar all women from teaching and leading men." -- Eddie Hyatt
Unfortunately for Eddie, the same is true for Ephesians 4:8. The word used here was anthropoi and it meant men. I understand that in our politically correct world we want to rewrite things so that everyone feels equally empowered to do whatever they want but God said what God said. The translations prior to 2011 had it right. Just check the Bible Hub Greek breakdown:
The truly sad thing is that adhering to 1Timothy 2 does not marginalize women nor make them subservient. The person doing an injustice to them is Eddie Hyatt by suggesting they contradict God. Take a step back here beloved and look at these arguments being presented. Take a look at the gymnastics Hyatt has to go through in order to dismiss clear and lucid instructions found in two distinct passages. Now he tries one last time to muddy the issue:
The word "authority" in 1 Timothy 2:11-12 is a translation of the Greek word authentein, which is found only here in the entire New Testament. The very fact that it is used only here should cause us to pause and question why that would be the case. It certainly indicates that Paul is not addressing the normal exercise of authority in the church. If Paul were addressing the normal exercise of authority in the church, he would have used the Greek word exousia, which he and other New Testament writers use over 100 times. That Paul uses this strange Greek word that neither he nor any other New Testament writer ever uses is a clear sign that he is addressing a unique and local situation in Ephesus and is not giving instructions for all churches everywhere.
Since the word authentein is used only here in the New Testament, it has been necessary to examine ancient Greek literature to see how it was used. Its use from around 600 B.C. up to the time of Paul carried the meaning of "gaining the upper hand" with connotations of control, dominance and even violence. In one case, it was used regarding a murder. The murderer was said to have committed authentein against the victim. From around the time of Paul and onward, authentein begins to take on a new meaning. Although the original meaning persists, it is now also used to refer to someone who claims to be the author or originator of someone or something. In fact, our words "author" and "authentic" are derived from authentein.
But why would Paul use such a word in this passage? -- Eddie Hyatt